We know that the function y = f (x, t) represents a wave travelling in one direction, where x and t must appear in the combination x + vt or x– vt or i.e. y = f (x ± vt). Is the converse true?

Can the following functions for y possibly represent a travelling wave:

(i) (x – vt) 2

(ii) \( log\dfrac{( x + vt)}{x_0}\)

(iii) \( \dfrac{1}{(x + vt )}\)

Asked by Pragya Singh | 1 year ago |  118

1 Answer

Solution :-

No, the converse is not true, because it is necessary for a wave function representing a travelling wave to have a finite value for all values of x and t. As none of the above functions satisfy the above condition, thus, none represent a travelling wave.

Answered by Abhisek | 1 year ago

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