Let f(x) = x. Accordingly,
\( f'(1)=\lim\limits_{h \to 0}\dfrac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h}\)
\(\lim\limits_{h \to 0}\dfrac{(1+h)-(1)}{h}\)
\( \lim\limits_{h \to 0}\dfrac{h}{h}\)
\( \lim\limits_{h \to 0}(1)=1\)
Thus, the derivative of x at x = 1 is 1
Answered by Abhisek | 1 year ago