If f(x) = \(\dfrac{ (4x + 3)}{(6x – 4)}\), x ≠ (\( \dfrac{2}{3}\)) show that fof(x) = x, for all x ≠ (\( \dfrac{2}{3}\)). What is the inverse of f?

Asked by Aaryan | 1 year ago |  175

1 Answer

Solution :-

It is given that f(x) = \(\dfrac{ (4x + 3)} {(6x – 4)}\), x ≠ \( \dfrac{2}{3}\)

Now we have to show fof(x) = x

(fof)(x) = f (f(x))

=\( \dfrac{ (4x+ 3)}{(6x – 4)}\)

\( \dfrac{34x}{34}\)

= x

Therefore, fof(x) = x for all x ≠ \( \dfrac{2}{3}\)

= fof = 1

Hence, the given function f is invertible and the inverse of f is f itself

Answered by Aaryan | 1 year ago

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