Given cos-1(cos 4)
We have cos–1(cos x) = x if x ϵ [0, π] ≈ [0, 3.14]
And here x = 4 which does not lie in the above range.
We know that cos (2π – x) = cos(x)
Thus, cos (2π – 4) = cos (4) so 2π–4 belongs in [0, π]
Hence cos–1(cos 4) = 2π – 4
Answered by Aaryan | 1 year ago