Let f: R → R and g: C → C be two functions defined as f(x) = x2 and g(x) = x2. Are they equal functions?

Asked by Sakshi | 1 year ago |  75

##### Solution :-

Given:

f: R → R ∈ f(x) = x2 and g : R → R ∈ g(x) = x2

f is defined from R to R, the domain of f = R.

g is defined from C to C, the domain of g = C.

Two functions are equal only when the domain and codomain of both the functions are equal.

In this case, the domain of f ≠ domain of g.

f and g are not equal functions.

Answered by Aaryan | 1 year ago

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