Is \(\frac{8}{9}\)  the multiplicative inverse of -1\(\frac{1}{8}\)? Why or why not? 

Asked by Sakshi | 2 years ago |  281

1 Answer

Solution :-

If it is the multiplicative inverse, then the product should be 1.

However, here, the product is not 1 as

\(\frac{8}{9} \times (-1\frac{1}{8})\) = \(\frac{8}{9}\) \(\times (-\frac{9}{8})\) = -1 \(\neq1\)

Answered by Aaryan | 2 years ago

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